Nuclear Physics – Old Year Questions

1. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched :

(a) Discovery of Meson – Hideki Yukawa
(b) Discovery of Positron and U.F. Hess – C.D. Anderson
(c) Theory of energy production in the sun and stars – H.A. Bethe
(d) Synthesis of transuranic elements – Enrico Fermi

[U.P. U.D.A./L.D.A. (Pre) 2002, U.P. P.C.S. (Pre) 2001, 2003]


2. Which one of the following is not correct :

(a) The theory of evolution was propounded by Charles Darwin.
(b) The breaking apart of the nucleus of an atom is called fusion.
(c) ‘Dry ice’ is nothing but solid carbon dioxide.
(d) Telephone was invented by Graham Bell.

[U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 1999]


3. Read the following statements–

Statement (A): Ernest Rutherford said in the Royal Society that a man will never be able to get nuclear energy.
Reason (R): He was confident that the Law of Einstein would fail and the volume would not be converted to energy.

Select your answer in the code given below :

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (A) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(d) (R) is correct but (A) is not correct.

[U.P. P.C.S. (Pre) 1994]


4. One of these particles is claimed to have invented which rebut the Einstein’s theory of relativity :

(a) Microwave photon
(b) Neutrino
(c) Liquid crystal
(d) Light emitting diode

[U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2009]


5. Cyclotrons are used to accelerate :

(a) Neutrons
(b) Protons
(c) Atoms
(d) Ions

[U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 1997]


6. Which one of the following can be used to confirm whether drinking water contains a gamma emitting isotope or not?

(a) Microscope
(b) Lead plate
(c) Scintillation counter
(d) Spectrophotometer

[I.A.S. (Pre) 1995]


7. The energy of the sun is released due to

(a) Nuclear Fission
(b) Nuclear Fusion
(c) Oxidation Reactions
(d) Reduction Reactions

[42nd B.P.S.C. (Pre) 1997, R.A.S./R.T.S. (Pre) 1993]


8. Stars obtain their energy from :

1. Nuclear fusion
2. Gravitational contraction
3. Chemical reaction
4. Nuclear fission

Select your answer from the codes given below:

Code :

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 2 and 4

[U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2000]


9. The stars receive their energy from which of the following?

(a) Nuclear fusion
(b) Nuclear fission
(c) Chemical reaction
(d) Gravitational pull

[Uttarakhand P.C.S. (Pre) 2006]


10. Which one of the following is the source of renewable energy in stars–

(a) Hydrogen changes into helium
(b) Helium changes into hydrogen
(c) Decay of radioactive material
(d) Excess of oxygen which is helpful in burning and generating energy.

[U.P.P.C.S.(Pre) 2009]


11. Source of Energy from the Sun is

(a) Nuclear fssion
(b) Nuclear fusion
(c) Photoelectric efect
(d) Cherenkov efect

Uttrakhand U.D.A./L.D.A. (Mains) 2006


12. Consider the following statements : In a nuclear reactor, a self-sustained chain reaction is possible, because :

1. More neutrons are released in each of the fusion reactions.
2. The neutrons immediately take part in the fission process.
3. The fast neutrons are slowed down by graphite.
4. Every neutron released in the fission reaction initiates further fission.

Which of these statements are correct?

(a) 1, 2, and 3
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4

[I.A.S. (Pre) 2001]


13. What is a Nuclear Reactor–

(a) Place where the atomic bomb is built
(b) Heavy water pond
(c) The emitter of U238
(d) Molecular furnace

[U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 1992]


14. Which statement is not associated with nuclear fission:

(a) Neutron-induced nuclear reaction.
(b) Energy generation in stars.
(c) Source of energy in a nuclear reactor that produces electricity.
(d) Enormous energy is released in an atom bomb.

[Uttarakhand P.C.S. (Pre) 2016]


15. Consider the following statements about nuclear fusion reactors :

i. They work on the principle of fission of heavy nuclei.
ii. They usually have Tokamak design.
iii. They operate at very high temperature.
Of these

(a) Only i and iii are correct
(b) Only i and ii are correct
(c) Only ii and iii are correct
(d) All the three i, ii and iii are correct

[U.P. R.O./A.R.O. (Pre) 2016]


16. The difference between a nuclear reactor and atom bomb is that :

(a) There is no chain reaction in nuclear reactor whereas this happens in atom bomb
(b) The chain reaction in nuclear reactor is controlled
(c) The chain reaction in nuclear reactor is not controlled
(d) Atom bomb is based on nuclear fusion whereas in nuclear reactor, nuclear fssion occurs.

[U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 1999, I.A.S. (Pre) 1995]


17. With reference to the radioactivity, which of the following statements is/are correct ?

1. Radioactivity is a nuclear property.
2. Hydrogen bomb is prepared on the principle of nuclear fssion.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Codes :

(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

[U.P. P.C.S. (Pre) 2021]


18. The important nuclear fuel available in India in abundance is :

(a) Uranium
(b) Thorium
(c) Iridium
(d) Plutonium

[U.P. Lower Sub. (Pre) 2003, R.A.S./R.T.S. (Pre) 1992]


19. Radioactive element which has been found to have large reserves in India is :

(a) Plutonium
(b) Radium
(c) Thorium
(d) Uranium

[Uttarakhand P.C.S. (Pre) 2006]


20. To meet its rapidly growing energy demand some opine that India should pursue research and development on thorium as the future fuel of nuclear energy. In this context, what advantage does thorium hold over uranium?

1. Thorium is far more abundant in nature than uranium.
2. On the basis of the per unit mass of mined mineral, thorium can generate more energy compared to natural uranium.
3. Thorium produces less harmful waste compared to uranium.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2, and 3

[I.A.S. (Pre) 2012]


21. Which of the following element is not included as a nuclear fuel–

(a) Cadmium
(b) Thorium
(c) Plutonium
(d) Uranium

[R.A.S./R.T.S. (Pre) 1993]


22. Identify the mineral not associated with atomic power –

(a) Monazite
(b) Thorium
(c) Beryllium
(d) Chromium

[Chhattisgarh P.C.S. (Pre) 2003]


23. Which of the following is not a fuel element?

(a) Uranium
(b) Thorium
(c) Radium
(d) Helium

[M.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 1997]


24. Which one of the following can not be used as a nuclear fuel?

(a) Uranium
(b) Thorium
(c) Calcium
(d) Plutonium

[U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2014]


25. Which is not used as Atomic fuel?

(a) Uranium
(b) Thorium
(c) Plutonium
(d) Lead
(e) None of these

[Chhattisgarh P.C.S. (Pre) 2014]


26. The principle of the atomic bomb is based on –

(a) Nuclear fusion
(b) Nuclear Fission
(c) Above both
(d) Above none

[39th B.P.S.C. (Pre) 1994]


27. Which of the following is used in the preparation of Nuclear bombs?

(a) Zirconium
(b) Uranium
(c) Molybdenum
(d) Vanadium

[M.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2014]


28. With reference to the radioactivity, which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

1. Radioactivity is a nuclear property.
2. A hydrogen bomb is prepared on the principle of nuclear fission.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.


(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) 1 and 2 both
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

[U.P. R.O./A.R.O. (Mains) 2016]


29. The working principle of atom bomb is nuclear fission of uranium and the working principle of hydrogen bomb is –

(a) nuclear fusion of deuterium.
(b) nuclear fission of thorium.
(c) explosion of a bomb involving hydrogen gas
(d) explosion involving dynamite and T.N.T.

[U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 1994]


30. The hydrogen bomb is based on the principle of –

(a) Controlled fusion reaction
(b) Uncontrolled fusion reaction
(c) Controlled fission reaction
(d) Uncontrolled fission reaction

U.P.P.C.S (Pre) 2010


31. The hydrogen bomb was developed by :

(a) Edward Teller
(b) Bernor Bon Bron
(c) J.Robert Oppenheimer
(d) Samual Cohen

[U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2015]


32. Enriched Uranium is –

(a) Uranium sticks laid in the particular shell.
(b) Natural uranium in which radioactive U235 isotope is increased artificially.
(c) mixture of natural uranium and thorium.
(d) chromium-coated uranium sticks.

[U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2009]


33. The ultimate product of the radioactive disintegration of uranium is –

(a) Lead
(b) Radium
(c) Thorium
(d) Plutonium
(e) Uranium

[Chhattisgarh P.C.S (Pre) 2013]


34. A radioactive substance has a half-life of four months. Three-fourths of the substance would decay in –

(a) 3 months
(b) 4 months
(c) 8 months
(d) 12 months

[I.A.S. (Pre) 2001]


35. The half-life of a radioactive element is 5 years the fraction of the radioactive substance that remains after 20 years is –

(a) 1/2
(b) 1/4
(c) 1/8
(d) 1/16

[I.A.S. (Pre) 1994]


36. The half-life of a radioactive substance is 10 days; it means there will be :

(a) complete decay of substance in 20 days
(b) complete decay of substance in 40 days
(c) decay of 3/4 part of substance in 20 days
(d) decay of 1/4 part of substance in 5 days

[R.A.S./R.T.S.(Pre) 2007]


37. Which one of the following is not radioactive?

(a) Astatine
(b) Francium
(c) Tritium
(d) Zirconium

[I.A.S. (Pre) 2001]


38. Which Uranium isotope is used in nuclear power plants to produce electricity?

(a) U-233
(b) U-234
(c) U-235
(d) U-239

[Uttarakhand P.C.S. (Pre) 2012]


39. Which metal can be used for producing electricity?

(a) Uranium
(b) Iron
(c) Copper
(d) Aluminium

[47th B.P.S.C. (Pre) 2005]


40. Radioactive substance emits –

(a) Alpha rays
(b) Beta rays
(c) Gamma rays
(d) All the above

[40th B.P.S.C. (Pre) 1995]


41. What happens if the control rods are not used in a nuclear reactor?

(a) The reactor will stop working
(b) Chain process would go out of bounds.
(c) The reactor will be slow to act.
(d) The reactor will continue to work as it is.

[R.A.S./R.T.S. (Pre) 1992]


42. Which one of the following is India’s first nuclear plant?

(a) Narora
(b) Kalpakkam
(c) Tarapur
(d) Kota

[M.P. P.C.S. (Pre) 1992]


43. India’s first atomic power station is –

(a) BARC
(b) Tarapur Atomic Power Station
(c) Narora Atomic Power Station
(d) None of these

[M.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2008]


44. Who is the present director of ‘BARC’?

(a) Satish Dhawan
(b) R.K. Sinha
(c) G. Madhavan Nayar
(d) Dr. Ramanna

[M.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2010]


45. What are the links between Dhruva, Purnima, and Cirus?

(a) They are Indian research reactors
(b) They are stars
(c) These are names of famous books
(d) They are power plants

[U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2004]


46. Which fuel is used by Nuclear reactors in India?

(a) U-270
(b) U-500
(c) Gasohol
(d) U-238

[Uttarakhand Lower Sub. (Pre) 2010]


47. Kalpakkam is famous–

(a) Due to nuclear power plant
(b) Due to defense laboratory
(c) Due to rocket launching center
(d) Due to space center.

[U.P. Lower Sub. (Pre) 2002, U.P.U.D.A./L.D.A. (Pre) 2001]


48. The Indira Gandhi Atomic Research Centre is located in

(a) Maharashtra
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Karnataka

[U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2004]


49. The fuel used in the Fast Breeder Test Reactor at Kalpakkam is

(a) Enriched Uranium
(b) Thorium
(c) Plutonium
(d) Tungsten

[Uttarakhand P.C.S. (Pre) 2006]


50. Which one of the following coolants is used in the ‘Fast Breeder Test Reactor’ at Kalpakkam?

(a) Carbon dioxide
(b) Heavy water
(c) Sea water
(d) Liquid sodium

[U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 1997, U.P. Lower (Spl) (Pre) 2008, U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2010]


51. What is true for the Kalpakkam Fast Breeder Reactor?

1. In it, natural uranium will be used as a fuel.
2. In it, Plutonium carbide and natural uranium carbide mixture will be used as a fuel.
3. More than 200 MW of atomic electricity will be produced from it.

Choose the correct answer from the following alternatives.

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3

[U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2005]


52. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?

(a) Indira Gandhi Centre for Atomic Research – Kalpakkam
(b) Atomic Minerals Directorate for Exploration and Research – Hyderabad
(c) Harishchandra Research Institute – Chennai
(d) Saha Institute of Nuclear Physics – Kolkata

[U.P.P.S.C. (GIC) 2010]


53. Consider the following organizations :

1. Atomic Minerals Directorate for Research & Exploration
2. Heavy Water Board
3. Indian Rare Earths Limited
4. Uranium Corporation of India

Which of these is/are under the Department of Atomic Energy?

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

[I.A.S. (Pre) 2001]


54. Heavy water is manufactured in India at –

(a) Trombay
(b) Assam
(c) Delhi
(d) Bhilai

[U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2015]


55. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below :
              List-I                                          List –II
(Atomic Power Station)        (State of Situation)
A. Kalpakkam                                1. Uttar Pradesh
B. Narora                                         2. Gujarat
C. Kakrapara                                  3. Tamil Nadu
D. Trombay                                     4. Maharashtra
Code :

(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 3 1 2 4
(c) 3 1 4 2
(d) 2 3 4 1

[U.P.P.S.C. (GIC) 2010]


56. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?

(a) Rajasthan Atomic Power Station – Udaipur
(b) Narora Atomic Power Station – Uttar Pradesh
(c) Madras Atomic Power Plant – Kalpakkam
(d) Kaiga Atomic Power Plant – Karnataka

[U.P. Lower Sub. (Pre) 2009]


57. The atomic power plants are located at Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
1. Narora
2. Ghatshila

3. Kalpakkam
4. Nangal

Code :

(a) 2 and 4
(b) 1 and 3
(c) only 4
(d) only 2

[U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2004]


58. Which one of the following atomic plants of India is located in the IV Seismic Zone?

(a) Kaiga
(b) Kalpakkam
(c) Narora
(d) Tarapur

[U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2010]


59. The atomic power plant which became active recently is located at :

(a) Kalpakkam
(b) Narora
(c) Tarapore
(d) Kaiga

[U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2000]


60. Russia has agreed recently to construct how many units of nuclear reactors at Kudankulam in Tamil Nadu?

(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 6

[U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2009]


61. The function of heavy water in a nuclear reactor is to

(a) Slow down the speed of neutrons.
(b) Increase the speed of neutrons.
(c) Cool down the reactor.
(d) Stop the nuclear reaction.

[I.A.S. (Pre) 2011]


62. Which one of the following is used as a moderator in a nuclear reactor?

(a) Thorium
(b) Heavy Water
(c) Radium
(d) Ordinary Water

[U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2011]


63. Which one of the following is used as a moderator in the nuclear reactor?

(a) Thorium
(b) Graphite
(c) Radium
(d) Ordinary water

[U.P.P.C.S (Pre) 2011]


64. Graphite is used in the nuclear reactor as –

(a) Fuel
(b) Lubricant
(c) Moderator
(d) None of the above

[U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2015]


65. A fast breeder reactor is a nuclear reactor which produces electricity –

(a) By fusion process
(b) With the help of solar cells
(c) By burning phenyl substances used by it and by its reproduction
(d) By using refned hard water

[38th B.P.S.C. (Pre) 1992]


66. A breeder reactor is that which –

(a) Does not require fissionable material at all
(b) Uses only heavy water
(c) Produces more fissionable material than it burns
(d) None of these

[U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2009]


67. The Nuclear Power Corporation of India is now in a position to sell “Pressurised Heavy Water Reactors” (PHWRs) to other countries.’ The reactors in question would be of capacity

(a) 200 MW or 500 MW
(b) 240 MW or 540 MW
(c) 220 MW or 500 MW
(d) 440 MW or 700 MW

[U.P. Lower (Spl) (Pre) 2008]


68. Which of the following nuclear power plants has the highest total installed capacity?

(a) Kakrapar
(b) Kaiga
(c) Kudankulam
(d) Tarapur

[U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2014]


69. The percentage of nuclear energy in India’s total energy generation is –

(a) 60%
(b) 27%
(c) 10%
(d) 3%

[U.P. Lower Sub. (Pre) 2008]


70. The official code name of the Pokhran nuclear test 1974, was –

(a) Smiling Buddha
(b) Thunder Bolt
(c) Flying Garud
(d) Agni Pareeksha

[U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2009]


71. The Pokhran II test was conducted on –

(a) June 11th, 1998
(b) June 9th, 1998
(c) May 11th, 1998
(d) May 29th, 1998

[43rd B.P.S.C. (Pre) 1999]


72. ‘Operation Shakti’-98 is the name :

(a) Given to the nuclear test carried out at Pokharan in 1998
(b) Given to air exercises carried out by Indian Air Force SU-30 planes
(c) Given to the pro-active program of the Union Home Minister to contain terrorism in J&K
(d) Given to military action against terrorists in Tripura

[U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 1999]


73. In May 1998 India conducted 5 nuclear tests at Pokhran. In which state does Pokhran lie?

(a) Gujarat
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Punjab
(d) Himachal Pradesh

[M.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 1998]


74. The Nuclear doctrine of India contains

(a) No first use
(b) Unilateral moratorium
(c) Minimum credible deterrence
(d) All of the above

[Uttarakhand P.C.S. (Pre) 2016]


75. Consider the following statements :

1. The Nuclear Security Summits are periodically held under the aegis of the United Nations.
2. The International Panel on Fissile Materials is an organ of the International Atomic Energy Agency.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

[I.A.S. (Pre) 2017]


76. Assertion (A): CERN (European Organization for Nuclear Research) is the world’s largest particle Physics Laboratory.
Reason (R): CERN is a French acronym for the name of the provisional body founded 2 years before the organization came into existence.

Code :

(a) Both (A) and (R) are individually true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) are (R) are individually true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is true, but (R) is true.

[M.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2008]


77. In which one of the following locations is the International Thermonuclear Experimental Reactor (ITER) project to be built?

(a) Northern Spain
(b) Southern France
(c) Eastern Germany
(d) Southern Italy

[I.A.S. (Pre) 2008]


78. India is an important member of the ‘International Thermonuclear Experimental Reactor’. If this experiment succeeds, what is the immediate advantage for India?

(a) It can use thorium in place of uranium for power generation
(b) It can attain a global role in satellite navigation
(c) It can drastically improve the efficiency of its fission reactors in power generation
(d) It can build fusion reactors for power generation

[I.A.S. (Pre) 2016]


79. Consider the following statements :

Assertion (A): India’s nuclear policy incorporates its unpreparedness to open its nuclear plants to international inspection.
Reason (R): India will not produce any nuclear bomb.

Select your answer from the code given below :

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation.
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

[U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 1994]


80. India has refused to sign the treaty on non-proliferation of nuclear weapons.

(a) It is discriminatory.
(b) It will slack India’s nuclear military capability.
(c) It is against the peaceful use of nuclear power.
(d) This strength negatively affects the balance in the South Asian region.

[R.A.S./R.T.S. (Pre) 1992]


81. Consider the following countries :

1. China
2. France

3. India
4. Israel

5. Pakistan

Which among the above are Nuclear Weapons States as recognized by the Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons, commonly known as the Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT)?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
(c) 2, 4 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

[I.A.S. (Pre) 2015]


82. What is/are the consequence/consequences of a country becoming a member of the ‘Nuclear Suppliers Group’?

1. It will have access to the latest and most efficient nuclear technologies.
2. It automatically becomes a member of “The Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons (NPT)”.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

[I.A.S. (Pre) 2018]


83. Which among the following countries is not a member of the Nuclear Suppliers Group –

(a) China
(b) New Zealand
(c) Ireland
(d) Iran

[M.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2008]


84. Which country was the first, after the ban on India was lifted by the Nuclear Suppliers Group, to sign an agreement that would allow the supply of civil nuclear technology to India –

(a) USA
(b) Italy
(c) Russia
(d) France

[M.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2008]


85. In the Indian context, what is the implication of ratifying the ‘Additional Protocol’ with the ‘International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)’?

(a) The civilian nuclear reactors come under IAEA safeguards
(b) The military nuclear installations come under the inspection of the IAEA
(c) The country will have the privilege to buy uranium from the Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG)
(d) The country automatically becomes a member of the NSG

[I.A.S. (Pre) 2018]


86. In India, why are some nuclear reactors kept under ‘IAEA Safeguards’ while others are not?

(a) Some use uranium and others use thorium
(b) Some use imported uranium and others use domestic supplies
(c) Some are operated by foreign enterprises and others are operated by domestic enterprises
(d) Some are State-owned and others are privately owned

[I.A.S. (Pre) 2020]


87. Recently, India signed a deal known as ‘Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field’ with which of the following countries?

(a) Japan
(b) Russia
(c) The United Kingdom
(d) The United States of America

[I.A.S. (Pre) 2019]