1. In which year was the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act first enacted?
(a) 1951
(b) 1954
(c) 1964
(d) 1956
[U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2006]
Ans. (b) 1954
- The law that prevents food from being changed or made impure was put into action on June 1st, 1955.
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2. All offenses punishable under the Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955 are :
(a) Cognizable and Non-bailable
(b) Cognizable and Summarily Triable
(c) Non-congnizable and Bailable
(d) Non-cognizable and Compoundable
[M.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2012]
Ans. (b) Cognizable and Summarily Triable
- Section 15 of the Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955 states that all offenses punishable under this act are serious enough to be dealt with quickly and can be tried in a summary way.
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3. Offences are tried under the Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955 by the Courts of
(a) Sessions Court
(b) Judicial Magistrate First Class
(c) Judicial Magistrate Second Class
(d) Chief Judicial Magistrate
[M.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2014]
Ans. (b) Judicial Magistrate First Class
- Judges in the highest court have been given the authority to set up special courts to handle cases related to the Protection of Civil Rights Act of 1955.
- In Uttar Pradesh, the highest court judges in each district have been assigned to be special courts for this particular Act.
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4. Under the Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955, All offences are –
(a) Cognizable
(b) Bailable
(c) Compoundable
(d) Punishment with imprisonment and fine both
[M.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2013]
Ans. (*)
- Section 15(1) of the Protection of Civil Rights Act of 1955 states that any criminal offense under this Act is considered a cognizable offense, and the State Government has the power to impose a collective fine on offenders.
- Besides this, the Act also states that offenders can be punished with either a fine or imprisonment, or both.
- Options A and D are correct, although the MPPSC initially said option C was the right answer, they eventually gave bonus marks to everyone.
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5. When the court, under section 12 of the Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955, shall presume that the offence is committed on the ground of “untouchability”?
(a) When it relates to members of Scheduled Castes only
(b) When it relates to member of Scheduled Tribes only
(c) When it relates to members of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes both
(d) None of the above
[M.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2019]
Ans. (a) When it relates to members of Scheduled Castes only
- If someone has done something illegal according to this law regarding a person belonging to a Scheduled Caste, the court will assume (unless proven otherwise) that the act was done because of ‘untouchability’.
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6. The Protection of Civil Rights Act, of 1955 extends to?
(a) The whole of India
(b) The whole of India except the State of Jammu and Kashmir
(c) Union Territories
(d) Only the State of Jammu and Kashmir
[M.P.P.C.S. (Pre) – 2018]
Ans. (a) The whole of India
- The Protection of Civil Rights Act of 1955 makes it illegal to practice or encourage untouchability and penalizes any disability caused by it.
- This law applies to all of India according to section 1(2) of the Act.
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7. If any person refuses admission to any person to any hospital, dispensary or educational institution on the ground of untouchability, then under which section of the Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955 he shall be punishable?
(a) Section – 4
(b) Section – 5
(c) Section – 6
(d) Section – 7
[M.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2019]
Ans. (b) Section – 5
- If anyone denies someone entrance to a hospital, clinic, or school that is meant to be open for the public or any particular group, they will be punished with jail time of at least one month and a maximum of six months, and a fine between one hundred and five hundred rupees.
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8. Under which of the following Sections of the Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955 has ‘offences by companies’ been provided?
(a) Section 10
(b) Section 12
(c) Section 14
(d) Section 16
[M.P.P.C.S. (Pre) – 2018]
Ans. (c) Section 14
- Section 10: If a public servant deliberately does not investigate an offense that is punishable under this Act, they will be considered as helping the offense.
- Section 12: If a crime against someone from the Scheduled Castes is committed, it will be presumed that the action was taken because of their untouchability unless proven otherwise.
- Section 14: A company means any legal body, such as a business or a group of people, and the director of a firm means a partner.
- Section 16: Unless stated otherwise, the rules of this Act will be followed even if there are other laws, customs, or orders in place.
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9. The Protection of Civil Rights Act extends to:
(a) The whole of India
(b) The whole of India except the Scheduled areas
(c) The whole of India except the State of Jammu and Kashmir
(d) The whole of India except the Union Territories of Goa, Daman, and Diu
[M.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2012]
Ans. (a) The whole of India
- The Protection of Civil Rights Act of 1955 applies to all of India.
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10. Who is held responsible for the offenses committed by Companies, under the Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955?
(a) Director
(b) Manager
(c) Secretary
(d) All of the above
[M.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2014]
Ans. (d) All of the above
- In case of any offense committed by companies under the Protection of Civil Rights Act,1955, the person responsible for the company affairs at the time of the incident, whether Director, Manager, or Secretary shall be deemed to be guilty of that offense and shall be prosecuted against and punished accordingly.
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11. All the punishable offenses under the Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955 are :
(a) Cognizable and Triable Summarily
(b) Cognizable and Non-Compoundable
(c) Non-Cognizable and Bailable
(d) Non-Cognizable and Compoundable
[M.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2019]
Ans. (a, b) Cognizable and Triable Summarily & Cognizable and Non-Compoundable
- Any offenses that are against the Protection of Civil Rights Act of 1955 are serious enough to be legally pursued, tried quickly, and not able to be settled out of court.
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12. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a) Hindu Marriage Act – 1955
(b) Hindu Succession Act – 1956
(c) 73rd Constitutional Amendment – Reservation of seats for women in the election of local bodies in urban areas
(d) Sati (Prevention) Act – 1987
[U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2009]
Ans. (c) 73rd Constitutional Amendment – Reservation of seats for women in the election of local bodies in urban areas
- The Hindu Marriage Act was passed in 1955, the Hindu Succession Act was passed in 1956, and the Sati (Prevention) Act was passed in 1987.
- Women were given reserved seats during local body elections in urban areas by the 74th Constitutional Amendment, not the 73rd Amendment.
- Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
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13. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below.
| List-I |
List-II |
| A. Indian Arms Act 1 |
1. 1876 |
| B. Royal Title Act |
2. 1878 |
| C. Indian High Court Act |
3. 1869 |
| D. Indian Divorce Act |
4. 1861 |
Codes :
|
A |
B |
C |
D |
| (a) |
2 |
3 |
1 |
4 |
| (b) |
3 |
1 |
2 |
4 |
| (c) |
1 |
2 |
3 |
4 |
| (d) |
2 |
1 |
4 |
3 |
[U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2020]
Ans. (d) 2143
- The correct matched order is as follows:
-
| List-I |
List-II |
| A. Indian Arms Act |
1878 |
| B. Royal Title Act |
1876 |
| C. Indian High Court Act |
1861 |
| D. Indian Divorce Act |
1869 |
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14. Consider the following statements :
1. The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 exempts several posts from disqualification on the grounds of ‘Office of Profit’.
2. The above-mentioned Act was amended five times.
3. The term ‘office of Profi t’ is well-defined in the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
[I.A.S. (Pre) 2019]
Ans. (a) 1 and 2 only
- The term ‘office of profit’ is not defined in the Constitution of India or in the Representation of the People Act, 1951.
- Article 102 of the Constitution states that a person cannot be elected as a Member of Parliament if they hold an office of profit under the Government of India or a State. But the Parliament can make a law which says that holding some offices does not mean that a person will be disqualified.
- The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 states what offices of profit are under the central and state governments.
- This Act has been changed five times.
- So, statements 1 and 2 are correct, and the right answer is option (a).
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15. The Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act came into force on –
(a) 20th September, 2005
(b) 30th September, 2006
(c) 10th October, 2006
(d) 26th October, 2006
[U.P. Lower Sub. (Mains) 2015]
Ans. (d) 26th October, 2006
- The Indian government passed a law called the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act in 2005 to protect women from domestic violence.
- This law went into effect on October 26th, 2006.
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16. Which of the following is not a Social Act?
(a) MISA Act
(b) Anti-Dowry Act
(c) Protection of Civil Rights Act
(d) Prevention of Immoral Traffic Act
[U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 1991]
Ans. (a) MISA Act
- MISA was a law passed in 1971 to help keep internal security in place.
- It was removed in 1977 and was not a law meant to help with social problems, unlike the other three laws mentioned.
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17. With reference to consumers’ rights/privileges under the provisions of law in India, which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
1. Consumers are empowered to take samples for food testing.
2. When a consumer files a complaint in any Consumer Forum, no fee is required to be paid.
3. In the case of the death of a consumer, his/her legal heir can file a complaint in the Consumer Forum on his/her behalf.
Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2 and 3
(c) Only 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
[I.A.S. (Pre) 2012]
Ans. (c) Only 1 and 3
- In 1986, the Indian government passed a law to protect consumer rights.
- This law allows consumers to test food samples. If a product has a malfunction or failure, the consumer can file a complaint in the Consumer Forum for a small fee.
- If a consumer dies, their legal heir can file a complaint on their behalf.
- The Consumer Protection Act of 2019 has replaced the 1986 version of this law.
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18. With reference to the ‘Prohibition of Benami Property Transactions Act, 1988 (PBPT Act)’, consider the following statements:
1. A property transaction is not treated as a benami transaction if the owner of the property is not aware of the transaction.
2. Properties held benami are liable for confiscation by the Government.
3. The Act provides for three authorities for investigations but does not provide for any appellate mechanism.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
[I.A.S. (Pre) 2017]
Ans. (b) 2 only
- The Benami Transaction Act from 1988 was changed by the Benami Transactions (Prohibition) Amendment Act from 2016.
- This means that even if someone is not aware of a law, they still can’t escape the consequences of breaking it.
- So, the first statement is wrong and the second and third statements are correct because Properties held by Benami are liable to be taken away by the Government, and the Benami Transaction (Prohibition) Amendment Act from 2016 also gives people the right to appeal.
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19. When was the Criminal Tribes Act enacted for the first time?
(a) 1952
(b) 1924
(c) 1871
(d) 1911
[U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2016]
Ans. (c) 1871
- In 1871, the British Government passed the Criminal Tribes Act, which was first put into effect in India, mainly in the Northern part, but eventually spread to the region of Bengal.
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20. The Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 came into force on:
(a) 1st July, 1989
(b) 30th January, 1990
(c) 30th July, 1989
(d) 1st January, 1990
[M.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2019, M.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2012]
Ans. (b) 30th January, 1990
- On September 11, 1989, the President approved the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989.
- This law became active on January 30, 1990.
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21. Under which one of the following Sections of the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 is ‘anticipatory bail’ prohibited?
(a) Section 22
(b) Section 20
(c) Section 18
(d) Section 16
[M.P. P.C.S. (Pre) 2018]
Ans. (c) Section 18
- The SC/ST Act of 1989 states that the Indian Penal Code’s Section 438 does not apply to people who break the law under this Act.
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22. Under which Act the Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribe Atrocity Removal Law was implemented?
(a) Act 1990
(b) Act 1989
(c) Act 1992
(d) Act 1991
[M.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2015]
Ans. (b) Act 1989
- The Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act (POA) was passed on September 11, 1989 and announced in the Gazette of India, Extraordinary, Part II, section 3(ii) on January 29, 1990
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23. Who has/had the power to make rules for carrying out the purposes of the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989?
(a) The State Government
(b) The Central Government
(c) Both (A) and (B)
(d) The Supreme Court
[M.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2016]
Ans. (b) The Central Government
- The Central Government has the power to create rules to help carry out the goals Under Section 23(1) of the Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribe (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989.
- These rules will be announced in the official Gazette.
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24. Offence committed by any public servant under Section 3 of the SC and ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989, provides for a minimum punishment of
(a) Three months
(b) Six months
(c) One year
(d) None of the above
[M.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2014]
Ans. (c) One year
- If a public servant does something wrong according to Section 3 of the SCs and STs (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989, they will be put in prison for at least one year.
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25. The State Government can specify a Court of Session to be a Special Court to try the offenses under the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 with the concurrence of the–
(a) Governor
(b) Chief Justice of the High Court
(c) Session Judge of the concerned district
(d) Ministry of Law
[M.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2013]
Ans. (b) Chief Justice of the High Court
- Section 14 of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 made rules to have fast trials.
- The State Government, with the approval of the Chief Justice of the High Court, will announce in the Official Gazette which court in each district will be the Special Court to deal with cases under this Act.
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26. An appeal under the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 shall lie from any judgment, sentence, or order to the High Court.
(a) Only on facts
(b) Only on law
(c) Both on facts and law
(d) None of the above
[M.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2019]
Ans. (c) Both on facts and law
- People belonging to Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes can appeal to the High Court against any judgement, sentence or order, both on facts and laws, under the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities
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27. The Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act is a special provision for the advancement of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes which is based on which one of the following doctrines?
(a) Doctrine of Severability
(b) Doctrine of Preferred Position
(c) Doctrine of Protective discrimination
(d) Doctrine of Harmonious Construction
[M.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2012]
Ans. (c) Doctrine of Protective discrimination
- The Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act of 1989 follows the principle of protective discrimination.
- It is designed to implement Article 15(4) of the Indian Constitution, which prevents people from being discriminated against because of their religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth.
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28. Who is empowered for imposition and realization of a collective fi ne under SC and ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989?
(a) District Magistrate
(b) State Government
(c) Special Court
(d) High Court
[M.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2014]
Ans. (b) State Government
- The State Government has the authority to impose fines and control other issues related to Section 16 of the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes Act, 1989.
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29. In a prosecution for an offense under the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989, the court can presume which of the following?
(a) Abetment
(b) Common Intention
(c) Common Object
(d) All of the above
[M.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2013]
Ans. (d) All of the above
- The court can assume that someone is helping another person commit a crime against a member of a Scheduled Caste or Tribe under Section 8 of the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989.
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30. Which of the following Sections of the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes Act, 1989 provides for the application of certain provisions of the Indian Penal Code?
(a) Section 12
(b) Section 10
(c) Section 6
(d) Section 8
[M.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2016]
Ans. (c) Section 6
- Section 6 of the 1989 Castes and Tribes Act states that the Indian Penal Code’s Sections 34, Chapters 3, 4, 5, 5-A, 149 and Chapter 23 all apply.
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31. Under the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989, which of the following is barred?
(a) Anticipatory Bail
(b) Post-arrest bail
(c) Benefit of probation
(d) All of the above
[M.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2013]
Ans. (a) Anticipatory Bail
- Anticipatory Bail is not allowed under the Act that protects Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes from Atrocities, which was passed in 1989.
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32. Under which of the following Sections of the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes Act, 1989 is anticipatory bail prohibited?
(a) Section 16
(b) Section 17
(c) Section 18
(d) Section 19
[M.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2016]
Ans. (c) Section 18
- Section 18 of the Scheduled Caste and Schedule Tribes Act, 1989 states that Anticipatory Bail cannot be used if someone is accused of breaking this Act.
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33. An offense committed under the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 shall be investigated by a police officer, not below the rank of –
(a) Sub-Inspector
(b) Inspector
(c) Deputy-Superintendent
(d) Superintendent
[M.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2013]
Ans. (c) Deputy-Superintendent
- The government created guidelines in 1995 to carry out the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989. As part of the rules, any offences under this Act must be investigated by a police officer who is at least a Deputy Superintendent.
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34. Which of the following powers is not provided to the specified Special Court under the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act?
(a) Forfeiture of property of a convict for an offense.
(b) To authorize a person for extra investigation other than police.
(c) To remove a person from the area who is suspected of committing a crime.
(d) Take measurements and photographs of a person who is suspected of committing a crime.
[M.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2012]
Ans. (b) To authorize a person for extra investigation other than police.
- In the given option ‘The Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989’ does not give Special Courts the power to allow someone else to investigate besides the police.
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35. Which of the following powers a Special Court cannot exercise under the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989?
(a) To remove a person
(b) To forfeit the property
(c) To take measurement of a person
(d) To impose collective fine
[M.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2013]
Ans. (d) To impose collective fine
- The Special Court does not have the authority to give out group punishments according to the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989.
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36. In a prosecution for an offense under the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989, the accused in his defense cannot take the plea that –
(a) The Act was done in the exercise of the right of private defense.
(b) He also belongs to the caste as that of the victim.
(c) The Act causes such a slight harm which could not be a subject of the complaint.
(d) None of the above.
[M.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2013]
Ans. (*)
- In a case where someone has committed an offence against someone from the Scheduled Castes or Scheduled Tribes, the accused cannot defend themselves by saying they belong to the same caste as the victim.
- This defence is not allowed under the (a) and (c) of the Act. The prosecution can still take place against the accused if they don’t belong to the SC/ST caste. The M.P.P.S.C gave bonus marks to all candidates since they provided more than one answer as part of their revised answer-key.
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37. A Court of Session specified as a Special Court to try the offences under the Scheduled Castes, and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act for the purpose of providing –
(a) Speedy trial
(b) Time-bound trial
(c) Special protection to victims
(d) All of the above
[M.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2012]
Ans. (a) Speedy trial
- A court was chosen to quickly deal with crimes against people of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes according to Section 14 of the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989.
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38. Under which one of the following Sections of the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes Rules, 1995, Constitution of ‘District Level Vigilance and Monitoring Committee’ has been provided?
(a) Section 18
(b) Section 19
(c) Section 17
(d) Section 16
[M.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2016]
Ans. (c) Section 17
- District Magistrate will form a district level vigilance and monitoring committee in every district, as stated in Section 17 of The Scheduled Castes and The Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Rules, 1995, to check how the rules of this Act are being followed.
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39. The Government enacted the Panchayat Extension to Scheduled Areas (PESA) Act in 1996. Which one of the following is not identified as its objective?
(a) To provide self-governance
(b) To recognize traditional rights
(c) To create autonomous regions
(d) To free tribal peoples from exploitation
[I.A.S. (Pre) 2013]
Ans. (c) To create autonomous regions
- The PESA Act gives tribal people the right to manage their own affairs and protects them from being taken advantage of.
- Option (c) is incorrect as the Act does not make any autonomous regions.
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40. The Right to Information Act of Parliament received the assent of the President of India on –
(a) 15th May, 2005
(b) 5th June, 2005
(c) 15th June, 2005
(d) 12th October, 2005
[U.P.P.C.S.(Pre) 2013]
Ans. (c) 15th June, 2005
- The Right to Information Act was passed by the Lok Sabha on May 11, 2005 and by the Rajya Sabha on May 12, 2005.
- It was then approved by the President at the time, Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam on June 15, 2005.
- It officially began on October 12, 2005, .
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41. The Right to Information is –
(a) A Fundamental Right
(b) A Legal Right
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
[U.P. U.D.A./L.D.A. (Spl) (Pre) 2010]
Ans. (c) Both (a) and (b)
- The Right to Information Act 2005 gives people the legal right to quickly get information from the government. Its main purpose is to give citizens more power, make the government more open and honest, stop corruption, and make sure democracy really works for people.
- The Supreme Court has said that the right to think and say what we want includes the right to know information. However, this right is not clearly written in the Indian Constitution.
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42. Which one of the following statements is true about right to information?
(a) It is a political right
(b) It is a constitutional right
(c) It is a legal right
(d) It is a social right
[U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2015]
Ans. (c) It is a legal right
- The Supreme Court has repeatedly declared that individuals have the freedom to think and speak their minds, as well as the right to access information.
- However, this right is not spelled out in the Indian Constitution.
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43. Which of the following terminology is/are mentioned in the Preamble of the Right to Information Act, 2005?
(A) Transparency of Information
(B) Revelation of Information
(C) Informed Citizenry
(D) Paramountcy of the democratic ideal
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Codes:
(a) (A) only
(b) (A) and (B)
(c) (A), (B), and(C)
(d) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
[R.A.S/R.T.S (Pre) 2018]
Ans. (d) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
- The preamble of RTI Act 2005-
- Para I –
- In order for democracy to work properly, citizens must be informed and have access to transparent information.
- This helps prevent corruption and allows the people to hold their governments and their representatives accountable.
- Para II –
- In real life, information needs to be kept confidential and not shared.
- It is important to balance the different interests while still keeping the importance of democracy as the top priority.
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44. The Right to Information Act was passed in the year–
(a) 2001
(b) 2004
(c) 2005
(d) 2002
[U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2013]
Ans. (c) 2005
- The Right to Information Act was put into effect in 2005.
- This law gives Indian citizens the right to ask for any information from the Government and makes the Government and its employees more responsible.
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45. Consider the following statements about the ‘Right to Information (RTI) Act, 2005’ and select one which has not been provided for or is specially exempted –
(a) It is not applicable in the State of Jammu and Kashmir.
(b) An applicant making a request for information will have to give reasons for seeking information.
(c) Removal of Chief Information Commissioner.
(d) Every Information Commissioner shall hold office for a term of 5 years or until the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.
[U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2006]
Ans. (*)
- At the time this question was asked, the Right to Information Act, 2005 had all the rules except for the one in option (b). Option (b) states that an applicant asking for information does not need to explain why they are asking or give any personal information other than what is needed to contact them.
- The tenure of the Central Chief Information Commissioner and each Information Commissioner, as well as the State Chief Information Commissioner and each Information Commissioner, has been changed from 5 years to an amount set by the Central Government.
- In addition, the special status of Jammu and Kashmir under Article 370 has been removed, so the Right to Information Act of 2005 works in both Jammu and Kashmir and Ladakh.
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46. Which of the following is related to the Right to Information Act, of 2005?
(a) Lily Thomas v/s Union of India
(b) Nandini Sundar v/s State of Chhattisgarh
(c) Namit Sharma v/s Union of India
(d) None of the above
[U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) (Re. Exam) 2015]
Ans. (c) Namit Sharma v/s Union of India
- The case of Namit Sharma versus the Union of India from 2012 is about the Right to Information Act of 2005.
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47. Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): The Right to Information Act has in general, been responsible for increasing the sense of responsibility nin bureaucracy.
Reason (R): It still has miles to go to create the desired impact.
Select the correct answer from the code given below :
Code :
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
[U.P. U.D.A./L.D.A. (Mains) 2010]
Ans. (b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
- The Right to Information Act of 2005 has made bureaucracy more accountable, but it hasn’t achieved its full potential yet. Both statements A and R are true, but R does not explain A correctly.
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48. The objective of the Right to Information Act is to –
(a) Secure access to information from public authorities.
(b) Provide information to the public by a person who has the information.
(c) Provide information by Government on a public place.
(d) Secure information by police from culprits.
[R.A.S./R.T.S. (Pre) 2007]
Ans. (a) Secure access to information from public authorities.
- Section 2 of the Right to Information Act, 2005 states that people have the right to access information held by public officials.
- People can look at records, documents, and works and take samples of the material.
- The Right to Information Act was passed by the Lok Sabha on May 11, 2005 and by the Rajya Sabha on May 12, 2005.
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49. Consider the following statements :
1. As per the Right to Education (RTE) Act, to be eligible for appointment as a teacher in a State, a person would be required to possess the minimum qualification laid down by the concerned State Council of Teacher Education.
2. As per the RTE Act, for teaching primary classes, a candidate is required to pass a Teacher Eligibility Test conducted in accordance with the National Council of Teacher Education guidelines.;
3. In India, more than 90% of teacher education institutions are directly under the State Government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only
[I.A.S. (Pre.) 2018]
Ans. (b) 2 only
- Anyone who has the required qualifications as set out by an educational authority chosen by the Central Government can be appointed as a teacher, according to Section 23(1) of the RTE Act, 2009.
- In order to teach in Primary classes, a person has to pass a Teacher Eligibility Test which is made according to the guidelines of the National Council of Teacher Education.
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50. Which High Court has said in its important decision that “the R.T.I. applicant should tell the reason for asking information under Right to Information”?
(a) Calcutta High Court
(b) Bombay High Court
(c) Allahabad High Court
(d) Madras High Court
[U.P.P.S.C. (R.I.) 2014]
Ans. (d) Madras High Court
- The Madras High Court’s two Justices, N. Paul Vasanthakumar and K. Ravichandrababu, said that people who want to get information under the Right to Information Act must explain why they want it and show that they have a legal reason to get it.
- This decision could have big effects on getting information through the RTI Act, even though the law doesn’t say anything about this.
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51. Under the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, who shall be the authority to initiate the process for determining the nature and extent of individual or community forest rights or both?
(a) State Forest Department
(b) District Collector/Deputy Commissioner
(c) Tahsildar/Block Development Officer/Mandal Revenue Officer
(d) Gram Sabha
[I.A.S. (Pre) 2013]
Ans. (d) Gram Sabha
- Section 6(1) of the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 gives the Gram Sabha the power to start the process of working out what kind of rights people have.
- After that, it is looked into further at Tehsil and District level.
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52. The National Green Tribunal Act, 2010 was enacted in consonance with which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India?
1. The right to a healthy environment, is construed as a part of the Right to life under Article 21.
2. Provision of grants for raising the level of administration in the Scheduled Tribes under Article 275(1).
3. Power and functions of Gram Sabha as mentioned under Article 243(A).
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
[I.A.S. (Pre) 2012]
Ans. (a) 1 only
- The National Green Tribunal Act of 2010 was made to go along with the right to have a healthy environment, which is seen as part of the right to life mentioned in the Constitution of India.
- This Act created the National Green Tribunal on October 18th, 2010 in India.
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53. Within how many days, an appeal can be made by an aggrieved person by a decision of the National Green Tribunal to the Supreme Court?
(a) Thirty days
(b) Forty-five days
(c) Sixty days
(d) Ninety days
[M.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2020]
Ans. (d) Ninety days
- The National Green Tribunal was created in 2010 under the National Green Tribunal Act.
- It is in charge of quickly dealing with cases related to protecting the environment, preserving forests and other natural resources, enforcing environmental rights, and providing help and payment for people affected by environmental damage.
- This is a group of people with the right kind of knowledge to handle disagreements connected to the environment that involve many different factors.
- The Tribunal will not follow the rules from the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, but will use principles of fairness instead.
- The Tribunal can look over its own decisions.
- If that doesn’t work, someone can appeal the decision to the Supreme Court within 90 days.
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54. The National Green Tribunal (NGT) was established by the Government of India in :
(a) 2007
(b) 2008
(c) 2009
(d) 2010
[U.P. R.O./A.R.O. (Pre) (Re-Exam) 2016]
Ans. (d) 2010
- In 2010, the National Green Tribunal was established following the National Green Tribunal Act.
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55. Which one of the following statements with respect to the Land Acquisition Act, of 1894 is not true?
(a) It was made by the British rulers
(b) Its purpose was to help the process of land reforms in India
(c) It has been replaced by another Act of India’s Parliament
(d) Its implementation had become disputed
[M.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2016]
Ans. (b) Its purpose was to help the process of land reforms in India
- The British rulers created the Land Acquisition Act in 1894, which started on March 1, 1894.
- This law was not for land reform in India, but to get land for public organizations, businesses, etc.
- This law has been replaced by the Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act of 2013.
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56. The Prevention of Money Laundering Act came into force in India during
(a) 1998
(b) 1999
(c) 2001
(d) 2005
[Uttarakhand P.C.S. (Pre) 2016]
Ans. (d) 2005
- In 2003, the Prevention of Money-Laundering Act was made official.
- This law became active on July 1, 2005, and was amended by the 2009 and 2012 Acts, which both became effective on their respective dates.
- The Prevention of Money-Laundering Act was changed in 2012 and went into effect in 2016 on February 15th.
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57. By passing, the ‘Triple Talaq Law’ recently, the Parliament of India endorsed which year’s ruling of the Supreme Court of India that had made Triple Talaq (Talaq-e-Biddat) as unconstitutional?
(a) 2011
(b) 2013
(c) 2015
(d) 2017
(e) None of the above/More than one of the above
[65th B.P.S.C. (Pre) 2019]
Ans. (d) 2017
- The Supreme Court in the Shayara Bano case (2017) said that the practice of Triple Talaq (Talaq-e-biddat) is not allowed.
- This practice goes against Article 14 of the constitution, which gives everyone the right to equality
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58. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Maternity Benefit (Amendment) Act, 2017?
1. Pregnant women are entitled to three months of pre-delivery and three months of post-delivery paid leave.
2. Enterprises with creches must allow the mother a minimum of six creche visits daily.
3. Women with two children get reduced entitlements.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
[I.A.S. (Pre) 2019]
Ans. (c) 3 only
- The Maternity Benefit (Amendment) Act of 2017 increased the amount of maternity benefit from 12 weeks to 26 weeks, but no more than 8 of those weeks can be before the due date. Statement 1 is incorrect.
- This law states that a woman who has two or more children is only allowed 12 weeks of maternity leave, with no more than 6 weeks before her due date. This means statement 3 is correct.
- Mothers who adopt a child younger than 3 months old are allowed 12 weeks of maternity leave. Additionally, the law says employers must let female employees visit the childcare center 4 times a day. Therefore, statement 2 is incorrect.
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59. Which of the following gave a legal basis to extraordinary powers exercised by the Government of India during the Lockdown?
1. Mental Health Care Act, 2017
2. Disaster Management Act, 2005
3. Enemy Property Act, 1968
4. Epidemic Diseases Act, 1897
Select the correct answer from the codes given below.
Codes :
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 2 and 4
(d) 1, 3 and 4
[U.P. P.C.S. (Pre) 2020]
Ans. (c) 2 and 4
- A law that is over a century old has helped the government in its struggle against Covid-19. On March 11, 2020, the government asked all states and territories to use the rules in Section 2 of the Epidemic Diseases Act of 1897.
- Government of India During Lockdown the government decided to make sure everyone follows the Union Health Ministry and State government guidelines for the COVID-19 pandemic.
- They also used the Disaster Management Act, 2005 to make a 21-day nationwide lockdown that began on 23 March, 2020.
- This means both laws gave the Indian government the power to do things it normally wouldn’t be able to do during the lockdown.
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60. Which one of the following is NOT correctly matched?
| Acts |
Year |
| 1. Prevention of Sedition Meeting Act |
1908 |
| 2. Explosive Substances Act |
1908 |
| 3. Indian Criminal Law Amendment Act |
1908 |
| 4. Newspaper (Incentive to Offence) Act |
1908 |
(a) 1
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
[U.P. R.O./A.R.O. (Pre) (Re-Exam) 2016]
Ans. (a) Prevention of Sedition Meeting Act – 1908
- In 1907, a law was passed to stop people from having meetings that threatened the government.
- The other law mentioned is correctly linked to this.
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