Election Commission – Old Year Questions

1. Consider the following statements with reference to India:

1. The Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners enjoy equal powers but receive unequal salaries.
2. The Chief Election Commissioner is entitled to the same salary as is provided to a Judge of the Supreme Court.
3. The Chief Election Commissioner shall not be removed from his office except in like manner and on like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court.
4. The term of office of the Election Commissioner is five years from the date he assumes his office or till the day he attains the age of 62 years, whichever is earlier.

Which of these statements are correct?

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 2and 4

[I.A.S. (Pre) 2002]

 

2. Consider the following statements:

(i) The Chief Election Commissioner of the Election Commission of India is paid a salary equal to the salary of the Judge of the Supreme Court.
(ii) The term of Chief Election Commissioner of the Election Commission of India shall be for a period of 6 years from the date of assuming office or till the age of 65 years, whichever comes first.
(iii) An Election Commissioner may, at any time, by writing under his hand addressed to the Chief Election Commissioner, resign his office.

Choose the correct statement.

(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (iii)
(d) (iii) only

[M.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2020]

 

3. Consider the facts given below:

1. Sukumar Sen was the first Chief Election Commissioner of India.
2. Rama Devi was the first woman Chief Election Commissioner of India.

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below.

Codes:

(a) Only 1 is correct
(b) Only 2 is correct
(c) Both 1 and 2 are correct
(d) Both 1 and 2 are incorrect

[U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2021]

 

4. The status of the Chief Election Commissioner of India is equal to the –

(a) Chief Justice of India
(b) Governor of a State
(c) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(d) Speaker of the Legislative Assembly of a State

[U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2016]

 

5. What is the tenure of the Chief Election Commissioner of India?

(a) Five Years
(b) During the pleasure of the President
(c) Six years or till the age of 65 years whichever is earlier
(d) Five years or till the age of 65 years whichever is earlier

[U.P.P.C.S.(Pre) 2012, Uttarakhand P.C.S. (Pre) 2012]

 

6. The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed from his office by

(a) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
(b) The President
(c) Provision of the Cabinet
(d) 2/3 majority of the members of both Houses of the Parliament on the basis of proven misconduct.

[U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 1991]

 

7. The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed from office by –

(a) Both Houses of Parliament by a two-thirds majority in each House.
(b) The same procedure which applies in the case of the removal of Supreme Court Judges.
(c) The President of India in consultation with the Chief Justice of India.
(d) The President on the advice of the Council of Ministers.

[U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2002]

 

8. The Election Commissioner can be removed by the

(a) Chief Election Commissioner
(b) Prime Minister
(c) President on the recommendation of the Chief Election Commissioner
(d) Chief Justice of India

[U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2014]

 

9. The Chief Election Commissioner of India is appointed by –

(a) Lok Sabha
(b) Prime Minister
(c) President
(d) Chief Justice

[Uttarakhand P.C.S. (Pre) 2010, Uttarakhand U.D.A./L.D.A. (Pre) 2007]

 

10. The Constitution of India provides for an Election Commission under Article –

(a) 321
(b) 322
(c) 323
(d) 324

[M.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2014, U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2010]

 

11. Which of the following articles of the Indian Constitution has the provision of the Election Commission?

(a) Art. 320
(b) Art. 322
(c) Art. 324
(d) Art. 326

[U.P. P.C.S. (Mains) 2017, 66th B.P.C.S. (Pre) 2020, U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2016]

 

12. Which of the following are the functions of the Election Commission of India?

(1) To conduct elections for the post of Speaker and Deputy-speaker of Lok Sabha and the Chairperson of Rajya Sabha.
(2) To conduct elections for the municipality and municipal corporations.
(3) To make a decision on all the doubts and disputes arising from the election.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:-

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) None of the above

[I.A.S. (Pre) 1994]

 

13. The functions of the Election Commission of India are-

(I) To conduct all the elections of the Parliament and State Legislative Assembly.
(II) To conduct elections for the post of President and Vice-President.
(III) To recommend for President’s Rule in case of any State not in condition to hold or conduct free and fair elections in any State.
(IV) To Supervise, direct, and control the work of preparing electoral lists.

Code :

(a) I, II, III
(b) I, II, and IV
(c) I, III, IV
(d) all of them

[U.P.U.D.A./L.D.A. (Pre) 2001]

 

14. Which one of the following functions is not related to the Election Commission?

(a) Direction and control of the preparation of the electoral rolls.
(b) Conduct of all elections to the Parliament and Legislatures of every State.
(c) To conduct the election of the officials of President and Vice-president.
(d) To make provisions with respect to elections to Legislatures.

[U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2009]

 

15. Election to the Office of the President is conducted by–

(a) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(b) The Prime Minister’s Office
(c) The Minister of Parliamentary Affairs
(d) The Election Commission of India

[U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2009]

 

16. Which of the following is not related to the Election Commission?

(a) To issue notification of election
(b) To distribute election symbols
(c) To settle the validity of elections.
(d) To conduct elections peacefully.

[U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 1992]

 

17. Which of the election systems have been adopted for different elections in India?

(1) Direct Election System on the basis of Adult Suffrage.
(2) System of Proportional Representation by a Single Transferable Vote.
(3) List System of Proportional Representation.
(4) The cumulative Voting system of Indirect Election.

Choose the correct answer from the given code-

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 1,2 and 3
(d) 2,3 and 4

[I.A.S. (Pre) 1994]

 

18. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the commencement of the election process in India?

(a) The recommendation for election is made by the Government, and the notification for election is issued by the Election Commission.
(b) The recommendation for election is made by the Election Commission, and the notification for election is issued by the Home Ministry at the Centre and Home Departments in the States.
(c) The recommendation for election is made by the Election Commission, and the notification for election is issued by the President and Governors of the States concerned.
(d) Both the exercises of making a recommendation for election and that of issuing a notification in respect of it are done by the Election Commission.

[I.A.S. (Pre) 1995]

 

19. Who decides disputes regarding the disqualification of Members of Parliament?

(a) The President
(b) The Concerned House
(c) The Election Commission
(d) The President in consultation with the Election Commission

[U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2009]

 

20. While deciding any question relating to the disqualification of a Member of Parliament, the President shall obtain
the opinion of

(a) Chief Justice of India
(b) Election Commission of India
(c) Attorney General of India
(d) Speaker of the Lok Sabha

[U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2015]

 

21. Under Article 103 of the Constitution of India, the President shall obtain the opinion of which of the following authorities before giving any decision on any question regarding the disqualification of the members of the Lok Sabha?

(a) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(b) Election Commission
(c) Supreme Court
(d) Attorney General

[R.A.S./R.T.S. (Pre) 2021]

 

22. If in an election to a State Legislative Assembly, the candidate who is declared elected loses his deposit, it means that 

(a) The polling was very poor.
(b) The election was for a multi-member constituency.
(c) The elected candidate’s victory over his nearest rival was very marginal.
(d) A very large number of candidates contested.

[I.A.S. (Pre) 1995]

 

23. The decision to disqualify the person declared convicted by the Court to contest the elections has been made by

(a) The Government of India
(b) The Supreme Court
(c) The Election Commission
(d) The Parliament

[I.A.S. (Pre) 2009]

 

24. The Right to Vote in India is a

(a) Fundamental Right
b) Constitutional Right
(c) Natural Right
(d) Legal Right

[U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) (Re. Exam) 2015]

 

25. Right to Vote and Right to be elected in India is a –

(a) Constitutional Right
(b) Fundamental Right
(c) Legal Right under an Act
(d) None of the above

[U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2010]

 

26. Voting rights by the youths at the age of 18 years were exercised for the first time in the General Election of

(a) 1987
(b) 1988
(c) 1989
(d) 1990

[U.P.P.C.S (Pre) 2011]

 

27. The age limit of voters of the Union and State Legislature was reduced from 21 years to 18 years by

(a) 57th Amendment, 1987
(b) 60th Amendment, 1988
(c) 61st Amendment, 1989
(d) 65th Amendment, 1990

[Chhattisgarh P.C.S. (Pre) 2011, 48th to52nd B.P.S.C. (Pre) 2008, U.P.P.C.S. (Spl) (Mains) 2004,41st B.P.S.C. (Pre) 1996]

 

28. Which of the following is concerned with the 61st Amendment of the Indian Constitution?

(a) Emergency powers of the President
(b) Powers of the President to extend President’s Rule
(c) Lowering the age of voters
(d) Financial Emergency

[U.P.P.C.S. (Spl) (Mains) 2008]

 

29. Which one of the following statements regarding Exit Poll is correct?

(a) Exit Poll is a term used to denote a post-election survey of voters regarding the candidates in whose favor they had exercised their franchise
(b) Exit Poll and Opinion Polls are one and the same
(c) Exit Poll is a device through which results of voting can be most exactly predicted
(d) Exit Poll is an administrative device made recently by the Chief Election Commissioner to prevent impersonation

[I.A.S. (Pre) 1994]

 

30. What is the total number of electors in the Lok Sabha elections of 2009 in Million? (1 million = 10 Lakh).

(a) 815
(b) 613
(c) 714
(d) 903

[U.P. Lower Sub. (Spl) (Pre) 2004]

 

31. Consider the following statements about the recent amendments to the elections law by the Representation of the
People (Amendment) Act 1996.

1. Any conviction for the offense of insulting the Indian National Flag or the Constitution of India shall entail disqualification for contesting elections to Parliament and State Legislatures for six years from the date of conviction
2. There is an increase in the security deposit that a candidate has to make to contest the election to the Lok Sabha
3. A candidate cannot now contest election from more than one Parliament Constituency
4. No election will now be countermanded on the death of a contesting candidate

Which of the above statements is correct

(a) 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2, and 4
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

[I.A.S. (Pre) 1999]

 

32. The Dinesh Goswami Committee recommended:

(a) The constitution of the state-level election commission
(b) List system of election to the Lok Sabha
(c) Government funding of parliamentary elections
(d) A ban on the candidature of independent candidates for the parliamentary elections

[I.A.S. (Pre) 1997]

 

33. The Dinesh Goswami Committee was concerned with:

(a) De-nationalisation of banks
(b) Electoral reforms
(c) Steps to put down insurgency in the northeast
(d) The problem of the Chakmas

[I.A.S. (Pre) 1995]

 

34. Who among the following was not a member of the Election Commission of India?

(a) Dr. M.S. Gill
(b) N.B. Lohani
(c) T.S. Krishnamurti
(d) B. Lyngdoh

[M.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2000 (*)]

 

35. Who was the first woman to become the Chief Election Commissioner of India?

(a) R.M. Nikam
(b) S.K. Bedi
(c) V.S. Ramadevi
(d) G.D. Das

[M.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2019]

 

36. Proportional representation is not necessary for a country where:

(a) There are no reserved constituencies
(b) a two-party system has been developed
(c) the first-past-post system prevails
(d) there is a fusion of Presidential and Parliamentary forms of government

[I.A.S. (Pre) 1997]

 

37. Consider the following statements:

1. The Election Commission of India is a five-member body.
2. Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections.
3. The Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognized political parties.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 3 only

[I.A.S. (Pre) 2017]

 

38. Given below are two statements:

Assertion (A): Powers for conducting elections to the Parliament and State Legislatures in a free and fair manner have been given to an independent body i.e. the
Election Commission.
Reason (R): The power of removal of Election Commissioners is with the executive.

In the context of the above, which one of the following is correct?

Code :

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true but, (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false but, (R) is true.

[U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2006]

 

39. Given below are two statements:

Assertion (A): A model code of conduct is to be followed by political parties as soon as an election is announced.
Reason (R): Model code of conduct was enacted by Parliament.

Choose the correct answer from the code given below:

Code :

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.

[U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2017]

 

40. The Election Commission was converted into a ‘Three members Commission’ in the following year:

(a) 1987
(b) 1988
(c) 1989
(d) 1990

[U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2006]

 

41. Which of the following elections is not conducted by the Election Commission?

(a) Lok Sabha
(b) Rajya Sabha
(c) President’s election
(d) Local bodies

[Uttarakhand U.D.A./L.D.A. (Mains) 2006, Uttarakhand U.D.A./L.D.A. (Mains) 2007]

 

42. With reference to the Delimitation Commission, consider the following statements:

1. The orders of the Delimitation Commission cannot be challenged in a Court of Law.
2. When the orders of the Delimitation Commission are laid before the Lok Sabha or State Legislative Assembly, no modifications can be made to the orders.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

[I.A.S. (Pre) 2012]

 

43. Which one of the following is the “National Voters’ Day”?

(a) 5th June
(b) Ist November
(c) 25th January
(d) 8th March

[M.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2012]

 

44. National Voters Day is celebrated on –

(a) 15th January
(b) 25th January
(c) 17th January
(d) 27th January

[U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2015]

 

45. Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R) :

Assertion (A): The System Of Proportional representation may solve the problem of minority representation to some extent.
Reason (R): The system of proportional representation enables due representation to all types of groups based on ethnicity, gender, interests, and ideologies.

Choose the correct answer from the code given below:

Code :

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

[U.P. Lower Sub. (Mains) 2013]

 

46. The system of proportional representation as an electoral mechanism ensures

(a) Majority rule
(b) Stability in Government
(c) Common political thinking
(d) Representation of minorities

[U.P. Lower Sub. (Pre) 2013, U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2013]

 

47. Study the following statements and select the correct answer from the code given below:

Assertion (A): The State Election Commission is a Constitutional authority.
Reason (R): Elections to rural local bodies are overseen by the Election Commission of India.

Code :

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
(d) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

[U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) (Re-Exam) 2015]