Indian polity & Governance Test 9
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Indian polity & Governance Test 9
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20 questions based on Polity and Governance.
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Question 1 of 20
1. Question
1 pointsA State Human Rights Commission can inquire into violations of Human Rights in respect of subjects mentioned in
- Union List
- State List
- Concurrent List
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: b)
A State Human Rights Commission can inquire into violation of human rights only in respect of subjects mentioned in the State List (List-II) and the Concurrent List (List-III) of the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution.
Incorrect
Solution: b)
A State Human Rights Commission can inquire into violation of human rights only in respect of subjects mentioned in the State List (List-II) and the Concurrent List (List-III) of the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution.
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Question 2 of 20
2. Question
1 pointsWhich of the statements about State Human Rights Commission is correct?
Correct
Solution: c)
- State Human Rights Commission is a Non-constitutional body.
- If any such case is already being inquired into by the National Human Rights Commission or any other Statutory Commission, then the State Human Rights Commission does not inquire into that case.
- The commission can review the constitutional and other legal safeguards for the protection of human rights.
- Although the chairperson and members of a State Human Rights Commission are appointed by the governor, they can be removed only by the President (and not by the governor).
Incorrect
Solution: c)
- State Human Rights Commission is a Non-constitutional body.
- If any such case is already being inquired into by the National Human Rights Commission or any other Statutory Commission, then the State Human Rights Commission does not inquire into that case.
- The commission can review the constitutional and other legal safeguards for the protection of human rights.
- Although the chairperson and members of a State Human Rights Commission are appointed by the governor, they can be removed only by the President (and not by the governor).
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Question 3 of 20
3. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements
- The constitution of India provides for a federal system of government in the country.
- The term federation has been explicitly mentioned in the constitution.
- Article 1 of the constitution describes India as a ‘Union of States’.
- The Indian federal system is based on the ‘American model’.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: a)
- The Constitution of India provides for a federal system of government in the country.
- The term ‘federation’ has nowhere been used in the Constitution. Instead, Article 1 of the Constitution describes India as a ‘Union of States’.
- The Indian federal system is based on the ‘Canadian model’ and not on the ‘American model’.
Incorrect
Solution: a)
- The Constitution of India provides for a federal system of government in the country.
- The term ‘federation’ has nowhere been used in the Constitution. Instead, Article 1 of the Constitution describes India as a ‘Union of States’.
- The Indian federal system is based on the ‘Canadian model’ and not on the ‘American model’.
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Question 4 of 20
4. Question
1 pointsWrit of Mandamus cannot be issued against:
- A private individual
- President of India
- A Tribunal
- An inferior court
- Chief justice of high court acting in judicial capacity
Select the correct answer code
Correct
Solution: b)
- Mandamus is a command issued by the court to a public official asking him to perform his official duties that he has failed or refused to perform. It can also be issued against any public body, a corporation, an inferior court, a tribunal or government for the same purpose.
- The writ of mandamus cannot be issued
(a) against a private individual or body;
(b) to enforce departmental instruction that does not possess statutory force;
(c) when the duty is discretionary and not mandatory;
(d) to enforce a contractual obligation;
(e) against the president of India or the state governors; and
(f) against the chief justice of a high court acting in judicial capacity.
Incorrect
Solution: b)
- Mandamus is a command issued by the court to a public official asking him to perform his official duties that he has failed or refused to perform. It can also be issued against any public body, a corporation, an inferior court, a tribunal or government for the same purpose.
- The writ of mandamus cannot be issued
(a) against a private individual or body;
(b) to enforce departmental instruction that does not possess statutory force;
(c) when the duty is discretionary and not mandatory;
(d) to enforce a contractual obligation;
(e) against the president of India or the state governors; and
(f) against the chief justice of a high court acting in judicial capacity.
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Question 5 of 20
5. Question
1 points1. Question
Consider the following statements about Speaker Pro Tem
- The President appoints a member of the Lok Sabha as the Speaker Pro Tem.
- The constitution mentions no oath to the office of Speaker Pro Tem.
- The Speaker Pro Tem has limited powers to that of the Speaker.
Which of the above statements are incorrect?
Correct
Solution: c)
- As provided by the Constitution, the Speaker of the last Lok Sabha vacates his office immediately before the first meeting of the newly-elected Lok Sabha. Therefore, the President appoints a member of the Lok Sabha as the Speaker Pro Tem. Usually, the senior most member is selected for this. (Statement 1)
- The President himself administers oath to the Speaker Pro Tem. (Statement 2)
- The Speaker Pro Tem has all the powers of the Speaker. (Statement 3)
Incorrect
Solution: c)
- As provided by the Constitution, the Speaker of the last Lok Sabha vacates his office immediately before the first meeting of the newly-elected Lok Sabha. Therefore, the President appoints a member of the Lok Sabha as the Speaker Pro Tem. Usually, the senior most member is selected for this. (Statement 1)
- The President himself administers oath to the Speaker Pro Tem. (Statement 2)
- The Speaker Pro Tem has all the powers of the Speaker. (Statement 3)
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Question 6 of 20
6. Question
1 pointsThe Constitution lays down which of the following qualifications for a person to be chosen a member of the state legislature:
- He must be a citizen of India.
- He must be not less than 25 years of age in the case of the legislative council and legislative assembly.
- He must make and subscribe to an oath or affirmation before the person authorised by the Election Commission.
- A person to be elected to the legislative assembly must be an elector for an assembly constituency in the concerned state.
Select the correct code:
Correct
Solution: a)
The Constitution lays down the following qualifications for a person to be chosen a member of the state legislature.
(a) He must be a citizen of India. (Statement 1)
(b) He must make and subscribe to an oath or affirmation before the person authorised by the Election Commission for this purpose. (Statement 3) In his oath or affirmation, he swears
(i) To bear true faith and allegiance to the Constitution of India
(ii) To uphold the sovereignty and integrity of India
(c) He must be not less than 30 years of age in the case of the legislative council and not less than 25 years of age in the case of the legislative assembly. (Statement 2)
(d) He must posses other qualifications prescribed by Parliament.
Accordingly, the Parliament has laid down the following additional qualifications in the Representation of People Act (1951):
(a) A person to be elected to the legislative council must be an elector for an assembly constituency in the concerned state and to be qualified for the governor’s nomination, he must be a resident in the concerned state.
(b) A person to be elected to the legislative assembly must be an elector for an assembly constituency in the concerned state. (Statement 4)
(c) He must be a member of a scheduled caste or scheduled tribe if he wants to contest a seat reserved for them. However, a member of scheduled castes or scheduled tribes can also contest a seat not reserved for them.
Incorrect
Solution: a)
The Constitution lays down the following qualifications for a person to be chosen a member of the state legislature.
(a) He must be a citizen of India. (Statement 1)
(b) He must make and subscribe to an oath or affirmation before the person authorised by the Election Commission for this purpose. (Statement 3) In his oath or affirmation, he swears
(i) To bear true faith and allegiance to the Constitution of India
(ii) To uphold the sovereignty and integrity of India
(c) He must be not less than 30 years of age in the case of the legislative council and not less than 25 years of age in the case of the legislative assembly. (Statement 2)
(d) He must posses other qualifications prescribed by Parliament.
Accordingly, the Parliament has laid down the following additional qualifications in the Representation of People Act (1951):
(a) A person to be elected to the legislative council must be an elector for an assembly constituency in the concerned state and to be qualified for the governor’s nomination, he must be a resident in the concerned state.
(b) A person to be elected to the legislative assembly must be an elector for an assembly constituency in the concerned state. (Statement 4)
(c) He must be a member of a scheduled caste or scheduled tribe if he wants to contest a seat reserved for them. However, a member of scheduled castes or scheduled tribes can also contest a seat not reserved for them.
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Question 7 of 20
7. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements with respect to Right to Freedom of Religion:
- Article 25 covers only religious practices and not religious beliefs.
- These rights are available only to citizens of India.
- Article 26 protects collective freedom of religion.
- It includes a right to convert another person to one’s own religion.
Which of the above statements are incorrect?
Correct
Solution: d)
Statement 1 – Article 25 covers not only religious beliefs (doctrines) but also religious practices (rituals).
Statement 2 – these rights are available to all persons—citizens as well as non-citizens.
Statement 3 – Article 25 guarantees rights of individuals, while Article 26 guarantees rights of religious denominations or their sections. In other words, Article 26 protects collective freedom of religion.
Statement 4 – Right to propagate: Transmission and dissemination of one’s religious beliefs to others or exposition of the tenets of one’s religion. But, it does not include a right to convert another person to one’s own religion. Forcible conversions impinge on the ‘freedom of conscience’ guaranteed to all the persons alike.
Incorrect
Solution: d)
Statement 1 – Article 25 covers not only religious beliefs (doctrines) but also religious practices (rituals).
Statement 2 – these rights are available to all persons—citizens as well as non-citizens.
Statement 3 – Article 25 guarantees rights of individuals, while Article 26 guarantees rights of religious denominations or their sections. In other words, Article 26 protects collective freedom of religion.
Statement 4 – Right to propagate: Transmission and dissemination of one’s religious beliefs to others or exposition of the tenets of one’s religion. But, it does not include a right to convert another person to one’s own religion. Forcible conversions impinge on the ‘freedom of conscience’ guaranteed to all the persons alike.
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Question 8 of 20
8. Question
1 pointsThe committees which examined the Centre-State Relations are:
- Sarkaria Commission
- L M Singhvi Committee
- Rajamannar Committee
- M M Punchhi Commission
Select the correct codes:
Correct
Solution: b)
In 1986, Rajiv Gandhi government appointed a committee to prepare a concept paper on ‘Revitalisation of Panchayati Raj Institutions for Democracy and Development’ under the chairmanship of L M Singhvi.
Incorrect
Solution: b)
In 1986, Rajiv Gandhi government appointed a committee to prepare a concept paper on ‘Revitalisation of Panchayati Raj Institutions for Democracy and Development’ under the chairmanship of L M Singhvi.
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Question 9 of 20
9. Question
1 pointsThe constitution upholds the rights of labour and ensures labour welfare in which of the following ways via Directive principles?
- It makes provision for just and humane conditions for work and maternity relief.
- It exhorts the government to take steps to secure the participation of workers in the management of industries.
Which of the above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: c)
Statement 1: Acts like Maternity Benefit Act or its recent amendment have been enacted in the spirit of the DPSP (Article 42).
Statement 2: These are socialist principles which draw their moorings from the history of economic
thought in India. India upholds an economic system based on the principles of equity, fairness and
justice, and therefore, such rights (provisions) are crucial to ensure labour welfare.
Incorrect
Solution: c)
Statement 1: Acts like Maternity Benefit Act or its recent amendment have been enacted in the spirit of the DPSP (Article 42).
Statement 2: These are socialist principles which draw their moorings from the history of economic
thought in India. India upholds an economic system based on the principles of equity, fairness and
justice, and therefore, such rights (provisions) are crucial to ensure labour welfare.
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Question 10 of 20
10. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the Union Government consider the following statements.
1. The Department of Revenue is responsible for the preparation of Union Budget that is presented to the parliament
2. No amount can be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India without the authorization of Parliament of India.
3. All the disbursements made from Public Account also need the Authorization from the Parliament of IndiaWhich of the following statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: c)
- The constitution establishes three types of funds – Consolidated Fund of India; Public Account; Contingency Fund.
- Prior authorization is required for withdrawing from Consolidated Fund of India. For Contingency fund of India, withdrawal can be authorized by the Parliament afterwards too. For Public Account, no such authorization is needed.
- Assessing the revenues from different central taxes is the primary function of the Department of Revenue and the expenditure estimates for the current and the next year for various expenditure heads are assessed by the Department of Expenditure. The Department of Expenditure also assesses the resources of the public sector undertakings (PSUs).
- The Budget division is a part of the Department of Economic Affairs.
Incorrect
Solution: c)
- The constitution establishes three types of funds – Consolidated Fund of India; Public Account; Contingency Fund.
- Prior authorization is required for withdrawing from Consolidated Fund of India. For Contingency fund of India, withdrawal can be authorized by the Parliament afterwards too. For Public Account, no such authorization is needed.
- Assessing the revenues from different central taxes is the primary function of the Department of Revenue and the expenditure estimates for the current and the next year for various expenditure heads are assessed by the Department of Expenditure. The Department of Expenditure also assesses the resources of the public sector undertakings (PSUs).
- The Budget division is a part of the Department of Economic Affairs.
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Question 11 of 20
11. Question
1 pointsWith reference to Right to Constitutional Remedies guaranteed under Article 32, consider the following statements:
- The Supreme Court has ruled that Article 32 is a basic feature of the constitution.
- Fundamental rights and other statutory rights can be enforced under Article 32.
- The Supreme Court has both executive and original jurisdiction in case of enforcement of Fundamental Rights.
- Article 32 cannot be invoked to determine the constitutionality of an executive order or a legislation unless it directly infringes on any Fundamental Rights.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
Correct
Solution: b)
- Statement 1 – The Supreme Court has ruled that Article 32 is a basic feature of the Constitution. Hence, it cannot be abridged or taken away even by way of an amendment to the Constitution.
- Statement 2 – Only the Fundamental Rights guaranteed by the Constitution can be enforced under Article 32 and not any other right like non-fundamental constitutional rights, statutory rights, customary rights and so on.
- Statement 3 – In case of the enforcement of Fundamental Rights, the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court is original but not exclusive. It is concurrent with the jurisdiction of the high court under Article 226.
- Statement 4 – Article 32 cannot be invoked simply to determine the constitutionality of an executive order or a legislation unless it directly infringes any of the fundamental rights.
Incorrect
Solution: b)
- Statement 1 – The Supreme Court has ruled that Article 32 is a basic feature of the Constitution. Hence, it cannot be abridged or taken away even by way of an amendment to the Constitution.
- Statement 2 – Only the Fundamental Rights guaranteed by the Constitution can be enforced under Article 32 and not any other right like non-fundamental constitutional rights, statutory rights, customary rights and so on.
- Statement 3 – In case of the enforcement of Fundamental Rights, the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court is original but not exclusive. It is concurrent with the jurisdiction of the high court under Article 226.
- Statement 4 – Article 32 cannot be invoked simply to determine the constitutionality of an executive order or a legislation unless it directly infringes any of the fundamental rights.
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Question 12 of 20
12. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements
- Only the CJI has the prerogative to constitute the Benches of the Court for hearing cases or settling issues related to constitutional law.
- No Supreme Court Judge can take up a matter suo moto that is pending for hearing by the SC, unless allocated by the Chief Justice of India (CJI).
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: c)
- CJI is described as ‘Master of the Roster’. This refers to the privilege of the Chief Justice to constitute Benches to hear cases.
- This privilege was emphasised in November 2017, when a Constitution Bench, led by the then Chief Justice of India Dipak Misra, declared that “the Chief Justice is the master of the roster and he alone has the prerogative to constitute the Benches of the Court and allocate cases to the Benches so constituted.”
- It further said that “no Judge can take up the matter on this own, unless allocated by the Chief Justice of India, as he is the master of the roster.”
Incorrect
Solution: c)
- CJI is described as ‘Master of the Roster’. This refers to the privilege of the Chief Justice to constitute Benches to hear cases.
- This privilege was emphasised in November 2017, when a Constitution Bench, led by the then Chief Justice of India Dipak Misra, declared that “the Chief Justice is the master of the roster and he alone has the prerogative to constitute the Benches of the Court and allocate cases to the Benches so constituted.”
- It further said that “no Judge can take up the matter on this own, unless allocated by the Chief Justice of India, as he is the master of the roster.”
-
Question 13 of 20
13. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements with respect to Right to Freedom of Religion:
- Article 25 covers only religious practices and not religious beliefs.
- These rights are available only to citizens of India.
- Article 26 protects collective freedom of religion.
- It includes a right to convert another person to one’s own religion.
Which of the above statements are incorrect?
Correct
Solution: d)
Statement 1 – Article 25 covers not only religious beliefs (doctrines) but also religious practices (rituals).
Statement 2 – these rights are available to all persons—citizens as well as non-citizens.
Statement 3 – Article 25 guarantees rights of individuals, while Article 26 guarantees rights of religious denominations or their sections. In other words, Article 26 protects collective freedom of religion.
Statement 4 – Right to propagate: Transmission and dissemination of one’s religious beliefs to others or exposition of the tenets of one’s religion. But, it does not include a right to convert another person to one’s own religion. Forcible conversions impinge on the ‘freedom of conscience’ guaranteed to all the persons alike.
Incorrect
Solution: d)
Statement 1 – Article 25 covers not only religious beliefs (doctrines) but also religious practices (rituals).
Statement 2 – these rights are available to all persons—citizens as well as non-citizens.
Statement 3 – Article 25 guarantees rights of individuals, while Article 26 guarantees rights of religious denominations or their sections. In other words, Article 26 protects collective freedom of religion.
Statement 4 – Right to propagate: Transmission and dissemination of one’s religious beliefs to others or exposition of the tenets of one’s religion. But, it does not include a right to convert another person to one’s own religion. Forcible conversions impinge on the ‘freedom of conscience’ guaranteed to all the persons alike.
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Question 14 of 20
14. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following statements is/are correct?
- A Bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its prorogation.
- A Bill pending in the Rajya Sabha, which has not been passed by the Lok Sabha, shall not lapse on dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Correct
Solution: b)
When the Lok Sabha is dissolved, all business including bills, motions, resolutions, notices, petitions and so on pending before it or its committees lapse. They (to be pursued further) must be reintroduced in the newly constituted Lok Sabha.
However, some pending bills and all pending assurances that are to be examined by the Committee on Government Assurances do not lapse on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
The position with respect to lapsing of bills is as follows:
- A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses (whether originating in the Lok Sabha or transmitted to it by the Rajya Sabha).
- A bill passed by the Lok Sabha but pending in the Rajya Sabha lapses.
- A bill not passed by the two Houses due to disagreement and if the president has notified the holding of a joint sitting before the dissolution of Lok Sabha, does not lapse.
- A bill pending in the Rajya Sabha but not passed by the Lok Sabha does not lapse. (Statement 2)
- A bill passed by both Houses but pending assent of the president does not lapse.
- A bill passed by both Houses but returned by the president for reconsideration of Houses does not lapse.
Incorrect
Solution: b)
When the Lok Sabha is dissolved, all business including bills, motions, resolutions, notices, petitions and so on pending before it or its committees lapse. They (to be pursued further) must be reintroduced in the newly constituted Lok Sabha.
However, some pending bills and all pending assurances that are to be examined by the Committee on Government Assurances do not lapse on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
The position with respect to lapsing of bills is as follows:
- A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses (whether originating in the Lok Sabha or transmitted to it by the Rajya Sabha).
- A bill passed by the Lok Sabha but pending in the Rajya Sabha lapses.
- A bill not passed by the two Houses due to disagreement and if the president has notified the holding of a joint sitting before the dissolution of Lok Sabha, does not lapse.
- A bill pending in the Rajya Sabha but not passed by the Lok Sabha does not lapse. (Statement 2)
- A bill passed by both Houses but pending assent of the president does not lapse.
- A bill passed by both Houses but returned by the president for reconsideration of Houses does not lapse.
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Question 15 of 20
15. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following provisions were added to the constitution through constitutional amendments?
- State to make special provisions for the advancement of socially and economically backward classes.
- State to impose further restriction on the rights to freedom of speech and expression.
- President is bound by the advice of the cabinet.
- Fundamental rights guaranteed by Articles 20 and 21 cannot be suspended during a National emergency.
Select the correct answer codes below:
Correct
Solution: c)
Statement 1 – First Amendment Act, 1951
Statement 2 – Sixteenth Amendment Act, 1963
Statement 3 – Forty-second Amendment Act, 1976
Statement 4 – Forty-Fourth Amendment Act, 1978
Incorrect
Solution: c)
Statement 1 – First Amendment Act, 1951
Statement 2 – Sixteenth Amendment Act, 1963
Statement 3 – Forty-second Amendment Act, 1976
Statement 4 – Forty-Fourth Amendment Act, 1978
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Question 16 of 20
16. Question
1 pointsWith reference to office of whip consider the following statements:
- The office of whip is not mentioned in the constitution, but is mentioned in the Parliamentary statute.
- He is appointed by the speaker in Lok sabha and by the Chairman in the Rajya sabha.
- He regulates and monitors the behaviour of the party members in the Parliament.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
Correct
Solution: c)
- Statement 1 – The office of ‘whip’, is mentioned neither in the Constitution of India nor in the Rules of the House nor in a Parliamentary Statute. It is based on the conventions of the parliamentary government.
- Statement 2 – Every political party, whether ruling or Opposition has its own whip in the Parliament. He is appointed by the political party to serve as an assistant floor leader.
- Statement 3 – He regulates and monitors the behaviour of the party members in the Parliament. The members are supposed to follow the directives given by the whip. Otherwise, disciplinary action can be taken.
Incorrect
Solution: c)
- Statement 1 – The office of ‘whip’, is mentioned neither in the Constitution of India nor in the Rules of the House nor in a Parliamentary Statute. It is based on the conventions of the parliamentary government.
- Statement 2 – Every political party, whether ruling or Opposition has its own whip in the Parliament. He is appointed by the political party to serve as an assistant floor leader.
- Statement 3 – He regulates and monitors the behaviour of the party members in the Parliament. The members are supposed to follow the directives given by the whip. Otherwise, disciplinary action can be taken.
-
Question 17 of 20
17. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements about Joint sitting of the parliament:
- The speaker of the Lok sabha summons and presides over the joint sitting of both the houses.
- Joint sitting is applicable to ordinary bills and financial bills only.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: b)
- Statement 1 – The president can summon both the Houses to meet in a joint sitting. The Speaker of Lok Sabha presides over a joint sitting of the two Houses and the Deputy Speaker, in his absence. If the Deputy Speaker is also absent from a joint sitting, the Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha presides. If he is also absent, such other person as may be determined by the members present at the joint sitting, presides over the meeting.
- Statement 2 – The provision of joint sitting is applicable to ordinary bills or financial bills only and not to money bills or Constitutional amendment bills.
Incorrect
Solution: b)
- Statement 1 – The president can summon both the Houses to meet in a joint sitting. The Speaker of Lok Sabha presides over a joint sitting of the two Houses and the Deputy Speaker, in his absence. If the Deputy Speaker is also absent from a joint sitting, the Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha presides. If he is also absent, such other person as may be determined by the members present at the joint sitting, presides over the meeting.
- Statement 2 – The provision of joint sitting is applicable to ordinary bills or financial bills only and not to money bills or Constitutional amendment bills.
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Question 18 of 20
18. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements.
The Rajya Sabha does not have a procedure for moving of
- Adjournment motion
- Censure motion
- No-confidence motion
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
Correct
Solution: c)
- Statement 1 and Statement 2 are not possible because these are motions that censure the government, and Rajya Sabha does not enjoy this power.
- A no-confidence motion is a parliamentary motion which is moved in the Lok Sabha against the entire council of ministers, stating that they are no longer deemed fit to hold positions of responsibility due to their inadequacy in some respect or their failure to carry out their obligations. No prior reason needs to be stated for its adoption in the Lok Sabha.
Incorrect
Solution: c)
- Statement 1 and Statement 2 are not possible because these are motions that censure the government, and Rajya Sabha does not enjoy this power.
- A no-confidence motion is a parliamentary motion which is moved in the Lok Sabha against the entire council of ministers, stating that they are no longer deemed fit to hold positions of responsibility due to their inadequacy in some respect or their failure to carry out their obligations. No prior reason needs to be stated for its adoption in the Lok Sabha.
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Question 19 of 20
19. Question
1 pointsThe ideal of ‘Welfare State’in the Indian Constitution is enshrined in its
Correct
Solution: b)
The directive principles are meant for promoting the ideal of social and economic democracy. They seek to establish a ‘welfare state’ in India.
Incorrect
Solution: b)
The directive principles are meant for promoting the ideal of social and economic democracy. They seek to establish a ‘welfare state’ in India.
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Question 20 of 20
20. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
- The Legislative Council of a State in India can be larger in size that half of the Legislative Assembly of that particular State.
- The Governor of State nominates the Chairman of Legislative Council of that particular State.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: d)
- The maximum strength of the council is fixed at one-third of the total strength of the assembly and the minimum strength is fixed at 40 (with some exceptions).
- The Chairman of the Legislative Council is elected by the council itself from amongst its members.
Incorrect
Solution: d)
- The maximum strength of the council is fixed at one-third of the total strength of the assembly and the minimum strength is fixed at 40 (with some exceptions).
- The Chairman of the Legislative Council is elected by the council itself from amongst its members.